ccna 640-802 18/521@97804709010776

#18-521

Assessment Test

1. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?

A. NCP

B. ISDN

C. HDLC

D. LCP

2. Each field in an IPv6 address is how many bits long?

A. 4

B. 16

C. 32

D. 128

3. The RSTP provides which new port role?

A. Disabled

B. Enabled

C. Discarding

D. Forwarding

4. What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?

A. Set the Telnet password.

B. Shut down the router.

C. Set your console password.

D. Disable console connections.

5. How long is an IPv6 address?

A. 32 bits

B. 128 bytes

C. 64 bits

D. 128 bits

6. What PPP protocol provides for dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?

A. NCP

B. HDLC

C. LCP

D. X.25

7. What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?

A. sh pvc

B. show interface

C. show frame-relay pvc

D. sho runn

8. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?

A. 192.168.168.129–190

B. 192.168.168.129–191

C. 192.168.168.128–190

D. 192.168.168.128–192

9. What does the passive command provide to the RIP dynamic routing protocol?

A. Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates

B. Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates

C. Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates

D. Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates

10. Which protocol does Ping use?

A. TCP

B. ARP

C. ICMP

D. BootP

11. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 12

12. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?

A. line telnet 0 4

B. line aux 0 4

C. line vty 0 4

D. line con 0

13. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?

A. show all access-lists

B. show access-lists

C. show ip interface

D. show interface

14. What does a VLAN do?

A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers

B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port

C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork

D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

15. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?

A. erase startup

B. erase nvram

C. delete nvram

D. erase running

16. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?

A. TCP

B. ARP

C. ICMP

D. BootP

17. Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. A and B

18. How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?

A. Never

B. Every 2 seconds

C. Every 10 minutes

D. Every 30 seconds

19. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.

B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed.

C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.

D. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.

20. Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?

A. A

B. B

C. G

D. N

21. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 12

22. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect to the global Internet?

A. NAT

B. Static

C. Dynamic

D. PAT

23. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.)

A. VLAN Trunking Protocol

B. VLAN

C. 802.1Q

D. ISL

24. What is a stub network?

A. A network with more than one exit point

B. A network with more than one exit and entry point

C. A network with only one entry and no exit point

D. A network that has only one entry and exit point

25. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

A. Session layer

B. Physical layer

C. Data Link layer

D. Application layer

26. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose two.)

A. Standard

B. IEEE

C. Extended

D. Specialized

27. To back up an IOS, what command will you use?

A. backup IOS disk

B. copy ios tftp

C. copy tftp flash

D. copy flash tftp

28. What command is used to create a backup configuration?

A. copy running backup

B. copy running-config startup-config

C. config mem

D. wr mem

29. What is the main reason the OSI model was created?

A. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model

B. So application developers can change only one layer’s protocols at a time

C. So different networks could communicate

D. So Cisco could use the model

30. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?

A. IP

B. TCP

C. UDP

D. ARP

31. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use to provide the router with a 64000bps serial link?

A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64

B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000

C. RouterA(config)#clockrate 64000

D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64

E. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

32. Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?

A. show access-lists

B. show interface

C. show ip interface

D. show interface access-lists

33. Which command is used to upgrade an IOS on a Cisco router?

A. copy tftp run

B. copy tftp start

C. config net

D. copy tftp flash

34. The Protocol Data Unit Encapsulation (PDU) is completed in which order?

A. Bits, frames, packets, segments, data

B. Data, bits, segments, frames, packets

C. Data, segments, packets, frames, bits

D. Packets, frames, bits, segments, data

Answers to Assessment Test

1. A. Network Control Protocol is used to help identify the Network layer protocol used in the packet. See Chapter 16 for more information.

2. B. Each field in an IPv6 address is 16 bits long. An IPv6 address is a total of 128 bits. See Chapter 15 for more information.

3. C. The port roles used within RSTP include discarding, learning, and forwarding. The difference between 802.1d and RSTP is the discarding

role. See Chapter 10 for more information.

4. C. The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your console user-mode password. See Chapter 6 for more

information.

5. D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, whereas an IPv4 address is only 32 bits long. See Chapter 15 for more information.

6. C. Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides negotiation of dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink. See Chapter 16 for more

information.

7. B. The show interface command shows the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface. See Chapter 16 for more information.

8. A. 256 – 192 = 64, so 64 is our block size. Just count in increments of 64 to find our subnet: 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128,

the broadcast address is 191, and the valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129–190. See Chapter 4 for more information.

9. B. The passive command, short for passive-interface, stops regular updates from being sent out an interface. However, the interface can still receive

updates. See Chapter 8 for more information.

10. C. ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies. See Chapter 3 for more information.

11. D. Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains per port. See Chapter 1 for more information.

12. C. The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change your Telnet password. See Chapter 6 for more

information.

13. B. To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command. See Chapter 12 for more information.

14. C. VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2. See Chapter 11 for more information.

15. A. The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM. See Chapter 6 for more information.

16. C. ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating router. See Chapter 3 for more information.

17. A. Class A addressing provides 24 bits for host addressing. See Chapter 3 for more information.

18. B. Every 2 seconds, BPDUs are sent out from all active bridge ports by default. See Chapter 10 for more information.

19. D. Switches do not propagate VLAN information by default; you must configure the VTP domain for this to occur. VLAN Trunking Protocol

(VTP) is used to propagate VLAN information across a trunk link. See Chapter 11 for more information.

20. C. IEEE 802.11bg is in the 2.4GHz range, with a top speed of 54Mbps. See Chapter 14 for more information.

21. A. By default, switches break up collision domains on a per-port basis but are one large broadcast domain. See Chapter 1 for more

information.

22. D. Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address translation. See Chapter 13 for more information.

23. C, D. VTP is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN information across a trunk link. 802.1Q and ISL

encapsulations are used to configure trunking on a port. See Chapter 11 for more information.

24. D. Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Default routes should be set on a stub network or network loops may occur;

however, there are exceptions to this rule. See Chapter 9 for more information.

25. B. Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer. See Chapter 1 for more information.

26. A, C. Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a router. See Chapter 12 for more information.

27. D. The command copy flash tftp will prompt you to back up an existing file in flash to a TFTP host. See Chapter 7 for more information.

28. B. The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startup-config. See Chapter 7 for more information.

29. C. The primary reason the OSI model was created was so that different networks could interoperate. See Chapter 1 for more information.

30. C. User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this connectionless service. See Chapter 3

for more information.

31. E. The clock rate command is two words, and the speed of the line is in bps. See Chapter 6 for more information.

32. C. The show ip interface command will show you if any interfaces have an outbound or inbound access list set. See Chapter 12 for more

information.

33. D. The copy tftp flash command places a new file in flash memory, which is the default location for the Cisco IOS in Cisco routers. See Chapter

7 for more information.

34. C. The PDU encapsulation method defines how data is encoded as it goes through each layer of the TCP/IP model. Data is segmented at the

Transport later, packets created at the Network layer, frames at the Data Link layer, and finally, the Physical layer encodes the 1s and 0s into a

digital signal. See Chapter 2 for more information.

ccna 640-802 s3-13/13@29/791

QUESTION NO: 13
Network equipment supporting the use of flow control mechanisms has been
recently installed in the TestKing network. What is the purpose of flow control in a
data network?
A. It ensures that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received.
B. It reassembles segments in the correct order on the destination device.
C. It provides a mechanism for the receiver to control the transmission speed.
D. It regulates the size of each datagram segment.
E. All of the above are functions of flow control
Answer: C
Explanation:
Flow control paces the transmission of data between a sending device and a receiving
device. Flow control ensures that the receiving device can absorb the data sent to it before
the sending device sends more. When the buffers on the receiving device are full, a
message is sent to the sending device to suspend transmission until the data in the buffers
has been processed.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Data retransmission mechanisms are not handled by control. They are most often
handled by transport layer protocols such as TCP.
B. This describes the reassembly portion of the segmentation and reassembly (SAR)
function of network equipment.
D. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) handles the regulation of maximum frame
sizes.

ccna 640-802 s3-12/13@27/791

QUESTION NO: 12
Refer to the following exhibit:

What data structure is described in the exhibit shown above?
A. IP datagram
B. TCP segment
C. Ethernet frame
D. UDP datagram
E. FDDI frame
F. Token Ring frame
G. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Figure below illustrates the fields and overall format of a TCP packet.
Twelve fields comprise a TCP packet.

The following descriptions summarize the TCP packet fields illustrated above.
1. SourcePort and DestinationPort-Identifies points at which upper-layer source and
destination processes receive TCP services.
2.
3. Sequence Number-Usually specifies the number assigned to the first byte of data in the
current message. In the connection-establishment phase, this field also can be used to
identify an initial sequence number to be used in an upcoming transmission.
4.
5. Acknowledgment Number-Contains the sequence number of the next byte of data the
sender of the packet expects to receive.
6.
7. Data Offset-Indicates the number of 32-bit words in the TCP header.
8.
9. Reserved-Remains reserved for future use.
10.
11. Flags-Carries a
variety of control information, including the SYN and ACK bits used for connection
establishment, and the FIN bit used for connection termination.
12.
13. Window-Specifies the size of the sender's receive window (that is, the buffer space
available for incoming data).
14.
15. Checksum-Indicates whether the header was damaged in transit.
16.
17. Urgent Pointer-Points to the first urgent data byte in the packet.
18.
19. Options-Specifies various TCP options.
Data-Contains upper-layer information.

ccna 640-802 s3-11/13@24/791

QUESTION NO: 11 DRAG DROP
You work as a network administrator at TestKing.com.
Your boss, Mrs. Tess King, is interested in the OSI layers. Match the terms with the
appropriate layer. Some options are not used.

Answer:
Explanation:

The Transport layer segments and reassembles data into a data stream. Services located in
the Transport layer segment and reassemble data from upper-layer applications and unite
it into the same data stream. They provide end-to-end data transport services and can
establish a logical connection between the sending host and destination host on an
internetwork.
TCP and UDP transport protocol lies on Transport Layer, which break down the data
coming from upper layer into segment.
Windows are used to control the amount of outstanding, unacknowledged
data segments that is also on Transport Layer.
Network Layer:

The Network layer (also called layer 3) manages device addressing, tracks the location of
devices on the network, and determines the best way to move data, which means that the
Network layer must transport traffic between devices that aren't locally attached. Routers
(layer 3 devices) are specified at the Network layer and provide the routing services
within an internetwork.
Protocol Data Packets (PDU) on Network Layer is known as Packets. Routing and
Routed protocols are lies on Network Layer.
Routing Protocol: RIP, IGRP, EIGRP, OSPF, BGP
Routed Protocol: IP, IPX